You make the assumption that a higher earning woman is actively trying to make her husband feel less than a man. How might she do that? Is it, perhaps, not that the man has been shaped by a patriarchal society in which he has fallen victim to gender roles? Why does the man’s feelings of emasculation have to be caused by a woman? I would really like to have a real life examples of significant data, in which men who have made less than their wives have actively been emasculated by actions and words from their wives.